NMC CBT Sample Questions and CBT Exam Practice

nmc cbt sample questions

 

1. The nurse is giving the client with a left cast crutch walking instructions using the three point gait. The client is
allowed touchdown of the affected leg. The nurse tells the client to advance the:
A. Left leg and right crutch then right leg and left crutch
B. Crutches and then both legs simultaneously
C. Crutches and the right leg then advance the left leg
D. Crutches and the left leg then advance the right leg

2. A patient was diagnosed to have Chron’s disease. What would the patient be manifesting?
A. Blood and mucous in the faeces C. Loss of appetite
B. Fatigue D. Urgent bowel

3. What is Disclosure according to NHS?
A. It is asking action to help people say what they want, secure their rights, represent their interests and obtain the services they need.
B. This is the divulging or provision of access to data.
C. It is the response to the suffering of others that motivates a desire to help.
D. It is a set of rules or a promise that limits access or places restrictions on certain types of information.
4. All but one are signs of anaphylaxis:
A. itchy skin or a raised, red skin rash C. hypertension and tachycardia
B. swollen eyes, lips, hands and feet D. abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting

5. What is comprehensive nursing assessment?
A. It provides the foundation for care that enables individuals to gain greater control over their lives and enhance their health status.
B. An in-depth assessment of the patient’s health status, physical examination, risk factors, psychological and social aspects of the patient’s health that usually takes place on admission or transfer to a hospital or healthcare agency.
C. An assessment of a specific condition, problem, identified risks or assessment of care; for example, continence assessment, nutritional assessment, neurological assessment following a head injury, assessment for day care, outpatient consultation for a specific condition.
D. It is a continuous assessment of the patient’s health status accompanied by monitoring and observation of specific problems identified.

6. Define standard precaution:
A. The precautions that are taken with all blood and ‘high-risk’ body fluids.
B. The actions that should be taken in every care situation to protect patients and others from infection,
regardless of what is known of the patient’s status with respect to infection.

C. It is meant to reduce the risk of transmission of bloodbourne and other pathogens from both recognized and
unrecognized sources.
D. The practice of avoiding contact with bodily fluids, by means of wearing of nonporous articles such as gloves, goggles, and face shields.

7. What is the purpose of clamping a chest tube?
A. To prevent further lung collapse and entry of air
B. To minimize the feeling of pain on drain insertion
C. To aid the drain into the correct position.
D. To minimize risk of infection

8. What is not true about compartment syndrome?
A. is a painful and potentially serious condition caused by bleeding or swelling within an enclosed bundle of
muscles
B. it occurs when pressure within a compartment increases and affects the function of the muscle and tissues
C. is defined by a critical pressure increase within a confined compartmental space, causing a decline in the
perfusion pressure to the compartment tissue
D. Compartment syndrome most commonly occurs in compartments in the leg or thigh.

9. What is the best site of buttock injections?
A. Ventrogluteal site B. Dorsogluteal site C. Rectus Femoris D. Greater trochanter area
10. What are the steps for the proper urine collection?
A. Clean meatus with soap and water
B. Catch midstream
C. Dispatch sample to laboratory immediately (within 6 hours)
D. Ask the patient to void her remaining urine into the toilet or bedpan.
A. A, B, & C B. B, C, & D C. A, B, & D D. A, C, & D

11. The doctor is about to insert an IV cannula when he was called to assist in an emergency. The nurse is not experienced in peripheral cannulation. What should the nurse do?
A. Inform the supervisor that the doctor left you to do it.
B. Apply the canula since you have seen it done before.
C. Do not give because you’re not trained and assessed as competent.
D. Have a friend help you apply it.

12. What is the purpose of NPO after surgery?
A. To prevent a blood clot C. To facilitate respiration
B. To prevent aspiration D. To prevent embolism

 

13. Nurses are not using a hoist to transfer patient. They said it was not well maintained. What would you do?
A. make a written report
B. complain verbally
C. take a picture for evidence
D. Do nothing

14. What is not included in the care package in a nursing home?
A. Laundry B. Food C. Nursing Care D. Social Activities

15. What is abduction?
A. any motion of the limbs or other body parts that pulls away from the midline of the body
B. the bending of a joint so as to bring together the parts it connects
C. the straightening of a joint
D. the movement of a body part toward the body’s midline

16. What is compassion?
A. It means that individuals are responsible for their actions and maybe asked to justify them.
B. It is intelligent kindness and is central to how people perceive their care.
C. It means all those in caring roles must have the ability to understand an individual’s health and social needs.
D. It enables us to do the right thing for the people we care for.

17. What is an intermediate care home?
A. It is the day-to-day health care given by a health care provider.
B. It includes a range of short-term treatment or rehabilitative services designed to promote independence.
C. It is a system of integrated care.
D. It is a means of organising work, that is patient allocation.

18. Which statement is not correct about the nursing process?
A. An organised, systematic and deliberate approach to nursing with the aim of improving standards in nursing
care.
B. It uses a systematic, holistic, problem solving approach in partnership with the patient and their family.
C. It is a form of documentation.
D. It requires collection of objective data.

19. Why are support stockings used?
A. To help relieve the pain and discomfort C. To prevent new varicose veins from appearing
B. To promote venous flow D. For cosmetic reasons

20. What is the best site to check for oedema?
A. Ankle or foot B. Eyes C. Lungs D. Abdomen

21. All but one describes holistic care:
A. A system of comprehensive or total patient care that considers the physical, emotional, social, economic, and
spiritual needs of the person; his or her response to illness; and the effect of the illness on the ability to meet
self-care needs.
B. It embraces all nursing practice that has enhancement of healing the whole person from birth to death as it’s
goals.
C. An all nursing practice that has healing the person as its goal.
D. It involves understanding the individual as a unitary whole in mutual process with the environment.

22. A patient suffered from CVA and is now affected with dysphagia. What should not be an intervention to this type of patient?
A. Place the patient in a sitting position / upright during and after eating.
B. Water or clear liquids should be given.
C. Instruct the patient to use a straw to drink liquids.
D. Review the patient’s ability to swallow, and note the extent of facial paralysis.

23. Which is not a sign or symptom of baby born with meconium stain?
A. Baby with a loud cry C. slow heartbeat
B. barrel-shaped chest D. rapid or labored breathing

24. A patient underwent an abdominal surgery and will be unable to meet nutritional needs through oral intake. A patient was placed on enteral feeding. How would you position the patient when feeding is being administered?
A. Sitting upright at 30 to 45° C. Sitting upright at 45 to 60
B. Sitting upright at 60 to 75° D. Sitting upright at 75 to 90°

25. A patient is being prepared for a surgery and was placed on NPO. What is the purpose of NPO?
A. Prevention of aspiration pneumonia C. For abdominal procedures
B. To facilitate induction of pre-op meds D. To decrease production of fluids

26. It is a condition in which you wake up during the night because you have to urinate.
A. Polyuria B. Oliguria C. Nocturia D. Dysuria

27. You were administering a pre-operative medication to a patient via IM route. Suddenly, you developed a needle-stick injury. Which of the ff interventions will not be appropriate for you to do?
A. Prevent the wound to bleed
B. Wash the wound using running water and plenty of soap
C. Do not suck the wound
D. Dry the wound and over it with a waterproof plaster or dressing

28. Why is pyrexia not evident in the elderly?
A. Due to lesser body fat C. Due to aged hypothalamus
B. Due to immature T cells D. Due to biologic changes

29. When do we need to document?
A. As soon as possible after an event has happened to provide current up to date information about the care
and condition of the patient or client)
B. Every hour
C. When there are significant changes to the patient’s condition
D. At the end of the shift

30. All should be seen in a good documentation except:
A. legible handwriting
B. Name and signature, position, date and time
C. Abbreviations, jargon, meaningless phrases, irrelevant speculation and offensive subjective statements
D. A correct, consistent, and factual data

31. A patient is scheduled to undergo an Elective Surgery. What is the least thing that should be done?
A. Assess/Obtain the patient’s understanding of, and consent to, the procedure, and a share in the decision making process.
B. Ensure pre-operative fasting, the proposed pain relief method, and expected sequelae are carried out and
discussed.
C. Discuss the risk of operation if it won’t push through.
D. The documentation of details of any discussion in the anaesthetic record.

32. A patient experienced sensation of fluttering in his chest, light headedness, & chest pain. The doctor diagnosed him with atrial fibrillation. What is atrial fibrillation?
A. a rare, rapid and disorganised rhythm of heartbeats that rapidly leads to loss of consciousness and sudden
death if not treated immediately
B. episodes of abnormally fast heart rate at rest
C. the heart beats more slowly than normal and can cause people to collapse
D. a heart condition that causes an irregular and often abnormally fast heart rate

33. Patient manifests phlebitis in his IV site, what must a nurse do?
A. Re-site the cannula C. Apply warm compress
B. Inform the doctor D. Discontinue infusion

34. Which statement is not true about acute illness?
A. A disease with a rapid onset and/or a short course one.
B. It will eventually resolve without any medical supervision.

C. It is rapidly progressive and in need of urgent care.
D. It is prolonged, do not resolve spontaneously, and is rarely captured completely.

35. Taking a nursing history prior to the physical examination allows a nurse to establish a rapport with the patient and family. Elements of the history include all of the ff except:
A. the client’s health status C. social history
B. the course of the present illness D. Cultural beliefs and practices

36. Which is not a sign or symptom of speed shock?
A. Headache B. A tight feeling in the chest C. Irregular pulse D. Cyanosis

37. What is not included in Palliative Care?
A. Psychological support C. Resuscitation
B. Spiritual support D. Pain management

38. All but one is an indication for pleural tubing:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Abnormal blood clotting screen or low platelet count
C. Malignant pleural effusion.
D. Post-operative, for example thoracotomy, cardiac surgery

39. Which is not considered in an oxygen prescription?
A. It should be prescribed.
B. Regular pulse oximetry monitoring must be available in all clinical environments.
C. Can be given to patients who are not hypoxaemic.
D. It must be signed and dated.
40. What is accountability?
A. It means that individuals are responsible for their actions and maybe asked to justify them.
B. It is intelligent kindness and is central to how people perceive their care.
C. It means all those in caring roles must have the ability to understand an individual’s health and social needs.
D. It enables us to do the right thing for the people we care for.

41. What is primary care?
A. It is the day-to-day health care given by a health care provider.
B. It includes a range of short-term treatment or rehabilitative services designed to promote independence.
C. It is a system of integrated care.
D. It is a means of organising work, that is patient allocation.

 

42. What is Advocacy according to NHS Trust?
A. It is taking action to help people say what they want, secure their rights, represent their interests and obtain the services they need.
B. This is the divulging or provision of access to data.
C. It is the response to the suffering of others that motivates a desire to help.
D. It is a set of rules or a promise that limits access or places restrictions on certain types of information.

43. The nurse monitors the serum electrolyte levels of a client who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is common cause of digoxin toxicity?
A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypomagnesemia D. Hypokalemia
44. You were the nurse on duty and it’s time to take your patient’s vital signs. Upon checking, you noted that the patient was given Digoxin and now has a heart rate of 50 BPM. What will you do with the next dose of Digoxin?
A. Omit then document C. Administer then document
B. Omit then double the next dose; document D. Administer then recheck VS

45. A patient had been suffering from severe diarrheoa and is now showing signs of dehydration. Which of the following is not a classic symptom?
A. passing small amounts of urine frequently C. dark-coloured urine
B. dizziness or light-headedness D. thirst

46. Signs and symptoms of early fluid volume deficit, except.
A. Decreased urine output C. Concentrated urine
B. Decreased pulse rate D. Decreased skin turgor

47. Which is not an indication for lumbar tap?
A. For patients with increased ICP
B. For diagnostic purposes
C. Introduction of spinal anaesthesia for surgery
D. Introduction of contrast medium

48. Correct position for abdominal paracentesis.
A. Lie the patient supine in bed with the head raised 45–50 cm with a backrest
B. Sitting upright at 45 to 60
C. Sitting upright at 60 to 75°
D. Sitting upright at 75 to 90°
49. MRSA means
A. Methilinase – Resistant Streptococcus Aureus
B. Methicillin-Resistant Streptococcus Aureus
C. Methilinase – Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
D. Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus

50. Among the following values incorporated in NMC’s 6 C’s, which is not included?
A. Care C. Confidentiality
B. Courage D. Communication